1s0x1 Assignments Definition

The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) is an alphanumeric code used by the United States Air Force to identify a specific job. Officer AFSCs consist of four characters and enlisted AFSCs consist of five characters. A letter prefix or suffix may be used with an AFSC when more specific identification of position requirements and individual qualifications is necessary. The AFSC is similar to the Military Occupational Specialty (MOS) used by the United States Army and the United States Marine Corps or enlisted ratings and USN officer designators and USCG officer specialities used by the United States Navy and the United States Coast Guard.

History[edit]

After the Air Force separated from the Army in 1947, it retained the Army's system of MOS occupation codes, modifying them in 1954. These were 5-digit codes; for example a maintenance data systems specialist was 39150 and a weather technician was 25170. In October 1993, the Air Force implemented a new system of AFSCs, aligning occupations with the forcewide restructuring that was implemented under Merrill McPeak.[1] These reduced officer AFSCs from 216 to 123 and enlisted AFSCs from 203 to 176.

Enlisted AFSCs[edit]

The enlisted AFSC consists of five alphanumeric characters:

  • Career group (Numerical)
    1. Operations
    2. Logistics & Maintenance
    3. Support
    4. Medical
    5. Professional
    6. Acquisition
    7. Special Investigations
    8. Special Duty Identifiers, typically used for Airmen chosen for specialized jobs
    9. Reporting Identifiers, typically used for Airmen in transitive status: trainees, awaiting retraining, prisoner, etc.
  • Career field (Alpha, different for each)
  • Career field subdivision (Numerical, different for each)
  • Skill level
    • 1 – Helper (recruits or retrainees in technical school)
    • 3 – Apprentice (technical school graduates applying and expanding their job skills)
    • 5 – Journeyman (experienced Airmen functioning as front-line technicians and initial trainers)
    • 7 – Craftsman (Airmen with many years of experience in the specialty, responsible for supervision and training)
    • 9 – Superintendent (Airmen in the grade of Senior Master Sergeant and above, with at least 14 years of experience, responsible for broad supervision)
    • 10 – Chief Enlisted Manager (CEM) (Airmen in the grade of Chief Master Sergeant responsible for policy and direction on a broad scale, from the individual squadron to HQ USAF levels)
  • Specific AFSC (Numeric, specialty within career field subdivision)

For example, in the AFSC 1N371:

  • The career group is 1 (Operations)
  • The career field is N (Intelligence)
  • The career field subdivision is 3 (CryptologicLinguist)
  • The skill level is 7 (Craftsman)
  • The specific AFSC is 1 (Crypto-Linguist Specializing in a Germanic Language)

For some specialties, an alpha prefix is used to denote a special ability, skill, qualification or system designator not restricted to a single AFSC (such as "X" for an aircrew position). Additionally, an alpha suffix (a “shredout”) denotes positions associated with particular equipment or functions within a single specialty (an Afrikaans specialist in the Germanic linguist field would have an "E" shredout). Using the above example, the AFSC X1N371E would refer to a Germanic Cryptologic Linguist who is aircrew qualified and specializes in Afrikaans.

Here is an extended listing of AFSC groups. Most categories have numerous actual AFSCs in them.

Operations[edit]

  • 1U - Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) Sensor Operator
    • 1U0X1 - Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) Sensor Operator
  • 1U1 - Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) Pilot
    • 1U1X1 - Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) Pilot
  • 1W - Weather
    • 1W0X1 - Weather
    • 1W0X2 - Special Operations Weather

Maintenance and logistics[edit]

  • 2A Aerospace Maintenance[5]
    • 2A0X1 - Avionics Test Station and Components
    • 2A2X1 - Special Operations Forces/Personnel Recovery (SOF/PR) Integrated Communication/Navigation/Mission Systems
    • 2A2X2 - Special Operations Forces/Personnel Recovery (SOF/PR) Integrated Instrument and Flight Control Systems
    • 2A2X3 - Special Operations Forces/Personnel Recovery (SOF/PR) Integrated Electronic Warfare Systems
    • 2A3X3 - Tactical Aircraft Maintenance
    • 2A3X4 - Fighter Aircraft Integrated Avionics (A-10, U-2, F-15, F-16)
    • 2A3X5 - Advanced Fighter Aircraft Integrated Avionics (F-22, F-35, MQ-1, MQ-9, RQ-4)
    • 2A3X7 - Tactical Aircraft Maintenance (5th Generation)(F-22, F-35)
    • 2A3X8 - Remotely Piloted Aircraft Maintenance
    • 2A5X1 - Airlift/Special Mission Aircraft Maintenance
    • 2A5X2 - Helicopter/Tiltrotor Aircraft Maintenance
    • 2A5X3 - Mobility Air Forces Electronic Warfare Systems
    • 2A5X4 - Refuel/Bomber Aircraft Maintenance
    • 2A6X1 - Aerospace Propulsion
    • 2A6X2 - Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE)
    • 2A6X3 - Aircrew Egress Systems
    • 2A6X4 - Aircraft Fuel Systems
    • 2A6X5 - Aircraft Hydraulic Systems
    • 2A6X6 - Aircraft Electrical and Environmental Systems
    • 2A7X1 - Aircraft Metals Technology
    • 2A7X2 - Nondestructive Inspection (NDI)
    • 2A7X3 - Aircraft Structural Maintenance[6]
    • 2A7X5 - Low Observable Aircraft Structural Maintenance
    • 2A8X1 - Mobility Air Forces Integrated Communication/Navigation/Mission Systems
    • 2A8X2 - Mobility Air Forces Integrated Instrument and Flight Control Systems
    • 2A9X1 - Bomber/Special Integrated Communication/Navigation/Mission Systems
    • 2A9X2 - Bomber/Special Integrated Instrument and Flight Control Systems
    • 2A9X3 - Bomber/Special Electronic Warfare and Radar Surveillance Integrated Avionics
  • 2F - Fuels
  • 2G - Logistics Plans
    • 2G0X1 - Logistics Plans[8]
  • 2M - Missile and Space Systems Maintenance[9]
    • 2M0X1 - Missile and Space Systems Electronic Maintenance
    • 2M0X2 - Missile and Space Systems Maintenance
    • 2M0X3 - Missile and Space Facilities
  • 2P - Precision Measurement
    • 2P0X1 - Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory[10]
  • 2R - Maintenance Management[11]
    • 2R0X1 - Maintenance Management Analysis
    • 2R1X1 - Maintenance Management Production
  • 2S - Materiel Management[12]
    • 2S0X1 - Materiel Management
  • 2T - Transportation & Vehicle Management[13]
    • 2T0X1 - Traffic Management
    • 2T1X1 - Ground Transportation
    • 2T2X1 - Air Transportation
    • 2T3X1 - Mission Generation Vehicular Equipment Maintenance
    • 2T3X7 - Fleet Management and Analysis
  • 2W - Munitions & Weapons

Support[edit]

Medical[edit]

  • Medical
    • 4A0X1 - Health Services Management
    • 4A1X1 - Medical Material
    • 4A2X1 - Biomedical Equipment
    • 4B0X1 - Bioenvironmental Engineering
    • 4C0X1 - Mental Health Service
    • 4D0X1 - Diet Therapy
    • 4E0X1 - Public Health
    • 4H0X1 - Cardiopulmonary Laboratory
    • 4J0X2 - Physical Medicine
    • 4M0X1 - Aerospace and Operational Physiology
    • 4N0X1 - Aerospace Medical Service
      • 4N0X1B- Neurodiagnostic Medical Technician
      • 4N0X1C- Independent Duty Medical Technician
      • 4N0X1F- Flight and Operational Medical Technician
    • 4N1X1 - Surgical Service
    • 4P0X1 - Pharmacy
    • 4R0X1 - Diagnostic Imaging
    • 4T0X1 - Medical Laboratory
    • 4T0X2 - Histopathology
    • 4V0X1 - Ophthalmic
  • Dental

Professional[edit]

Acquisition[edit]

Special Investigations[edit]

Special Duty Identifiers[edit]

  • 8A100 - Career Assistance Advisor
  • 8A200 - Enlisted Aide
  • 8A300 - Protocol (Established 31 Oct 15)
  • 8B000 - Military Training Instructor
  • 8B100 - Military Training Leader
  • 8B200 - Academy Military Training NCO
  • 8C000 - Airman & Family Readiness Center RNCO
  • 8D100 - Language & Culture Advisor
  • 8F000 - First Sergeant
  • 8G000 - Honor Guard
  • 8G100 - USAF Installation Honor Guard Program Manager
  • 8H000 - Airman Dorm Leader
  • 8I000 - IG Superintendent, Inspections
  • 8M000 - Postal service (currently being phased into 3F5X1, will be discontinued at a future date)
  • 8P000 - Courier
  • 8P100 - Defense Attaché
  • 8R000 - Enlisted Accessions Recruiter[27]
  • 8R200 - Second-Tier Recruiter
  • 8R300 - Third-Tier Recruiter
  • 8S000 - Missile Facility Manager
  • 8T000 - Professional Military Education Instructor
  • 8T100 - Enlisted Professional Military Education Instructional System Designer
  • 8U000 - Unit Deployment Manager

Reporting Identifiers[edit]

  • 9A000 - Awaiting Retraining-Reasons beyond Control
  • 9A100 - Awaiting Retraining-Reasons within Control
  • 9A200 - Awaiting Discharge/Separation/Retirement for Reasons Within Their Control
  • 9A300 - Awaiting Discharge/Separation/Retirement for Reasons Beyond Their Control
  • 9A400 - Disqualified Airman, Return to Duty Program
  • 9A500 - Temporarily Ineligible for Retraining – Disqualified for Reasons Beyond Control
  • 9C000 - CMSgt of the Air Force
  • 9D100 - Key Developmental Senior Enlisted Positions on Headquarters Air Force Staff and Air Force Senior Noncommissioned Officer Academy at Maxwell-Gunter Annex
  • 9E000 - Command Chief Master Sergeant
  • 9F000 - First Term Airmen Center (FTAC) NCOIC
  • 9G100 - Group Superintendent
  • 9J000 - Prisoner
  • 9L000 - Interpreter/Translator
  • 9L100 - Enlisted Engagement Manager/International Affairs
  • 9M000 - Military Entrance Processing Command (MEPCOM) Senior Enlisted Advisor
  • 9M200 - International Health Specialists (IHS)
  • 9M400 - Chief, Medical Enlisted Force (CMEF)
  • 9N000 - Secretary of the Air Force Enlisted Legislative Fellows
  • 9P000 - Patient
  • 9R000 - Civil Air Patrol (CAP)-USAF Reserve Assistance NCO
  • 9S100 - Scientific Applications Specialist[28]
  • 9T000 - Basic Enlisted Airman
  • 9T100 - Officer Trainee
  • 9T200 - Pre-Cadet Assignee
  • 9U000 - Enlisted Airman Ineligible for Local Utilization
  • 9U100 - Unallotted Enlisted Authorization
  • 9W000 - Combat Wounded Warrior[29]
  • 9W100 - Reserved for Future Use
  • 9W200 - Combat Wounded Warrior with Exemptions[30]
  • 9W300 - Non-Combat Wounded Warrior
  • 9W400 - Wounded Warrior-Limited Assignment Status (LAS)
  • 9W500 - Wounded Warrior-Retired/Discharged
  • 9W600 - Reserved for Future Use
  • 9W700 - Reserved for Future Use
  • 9W800 - Reserved for Future Use
  • 9W900 - Reserved for Future Use

Officer AFSCs[edit]

The officer AFSC consists of four alphanumeric characters:

  • Career Group (Numerical)
    • 1 (Operations)
    • 2 (Logistics)
    • 3 (Support)
    • 4 (Medical)
    • 5 (Professional Services)
    • 6 (Acquisition)
    • 7 (Special Investigations)
    • 8 (Special Duty Identifier)
    • 9 (Reporting Identifier)
  • Utilization Field (Numerical, different for each)
  • Functional Area (Alpha, different for each)
  • Qualification Level
    • 0 – Qualified commander (when used in conjunction with “C” in the 3rd position)
    • 1 – Entry (any AFSC)
    • 2 – Intermediate (is only used for pilots, bomber navigators, missile launch officers, and cyberspace officers)
    • 3 – Qualified (any AFSC)
    • 4 – Staff (relates only to the level of functional responsibility and is restricted to positions above wing level; it does not denote additional specialty qualifications)

For example, in the AFSC 11A4:

  • The career group is 11 (Pilot)
  • The functional area is A (Airlift)
  • The qualification level is 4 (Staff)

For example, in the AFSC T63A3

  • The career group is 63 (acquisition manager)
  • The functional area is A (all 63 officers are "A")
  • The qualification level is 3 (fully qualified)
  • The prefix "T" designates a formal training instructor (other pre-fixes are available for other specialty positions)

As with enlisted AFSCs, prefixes and suffixes may be applied to make the AFSC more specific.

Operations[edit]

  • 10C0 - Operations Commander
  • 11BX - Bomber Pilot
  • 11EX - Experimental Test Pilot
  • 11FX - Fighter Pilot
  • 11GX - Generalist Pilot
  • 11HX - Combat Rescue Pilot (includes both helicopter and fixed-wing)
  • 11KX - Trainer Pilot
  • 11MX - Mobility Pilot
  • 11RX - Recce/Surv/Elect Warfare Pilot
  • 11SX - Special Operations Pilot
  • 11UX - Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) Pilot
  • 12BX - Bomber Combat Systems Officer
  • 12EX - Experimental Test Combat Systems Officer
  • 12FX - Fighter Weapon Systems Officer (WSO)
  • 12GX - Generalist Combat Systems Officer
  • 12HX - Combat Rescue Combat Systems Officer
  • 12KX - Trainer Combat Systems Officer
  • 12MX - Mobility Combat Systems Officer
  • 12RX - Recce/Surv/Elect Warfare Combat Systems Officer
  • 12SX - Special Operations Combat Systems Officer
  • 12UX - Remotely Piloted Aircraft Pilot
  • 13AX - Astronaut
  • 13BX - Air Battle Manager
  • 13CX - Special Tactics Officer[31]
  • 13DX - Combat Rescue Officer
  • 13LX - Air Liaison Officer
  • 13MX - Airfield Operations
  • 13NX - Nuclear and Missile Operations
  • 13SX - Space Operations
  • 14FX - Information Operations
  • 14NX - Intelligence
  • 15WX - Weather
  • 16FX - Regional Affairs Strategist
  • 16GX - Air Force Operations Staff Officer
  • 16PX - Political-Military Affairs Strategist
  • 16RX - Planning & Programming
  • 17CX - Cyberspace Operations Commander
  • 17DX - Network Operations Officer
  • 17SX - Cyberspace Warfare Operations Officer
  • 18AX - Attack Remotely Piloted Aircraft Pilot (18X established in October 2009[32])
  • 18GX - Generalist Remotely Piloted Aircraft Pilot
  • 18RX - Recce Remotely Piloted Aircraft Pilot

Logistics[edit]

  • 20C0 - Maintenance Group Commander or Deputy Group Commander
  • 21AX - Aircraft Maintenance Officer (MXO)
  • 21MX - Munitions and Missile Maintenance
  • 21RX - Logistics Readiness Officer (LRO)

Support[edit]

Medical[edit]

Professional[edit]

Acquisition[edit]

  • 60C0 - Program Director
  • 61AX - Operations Research Analyst
  • 61BX - Behavioral Science/Human Factors Scientist
  • 61CX - Chemist/Biologist
  • 61DX - Physicist/Nuclear Engineer
  • 62EX - Developmental Engineer
  • 62EXA - Aeronautical Engineer
  • 62EXB - Astronautical Engineer
  • 62EXC - Computer Systems Engineer
  • 62EXE - Electrical/Electronic Engineer
  • 62EXF - Flight Test Engineer
  • 62EXG - Project Engineer
  • 62EXH - Mechanical Engineer [33]
  • 62S0 - Materiel Leader
  • 63AX - Acquisition Manager
  • 63G0 - Senior Materiel Leader
  • 63S0 - Materiel Leader
  • 64PX - Contracting
  • 65AX - Auditor
  • 65FX - Financial Management
  • 65WX - Cost Analysis

Special Investigations[edit]

  • 71SX - Special Investigator

Special Duty Identifiers[edit]

  • 80C0 - Commander, Cadet Squadron, USAFA
  • 81C0 - Training Commander, OTS
  • 81T0 - Instructor
  • 82A0 - Academic Program Manager
  • 83R0 - Recruiting Service
  • 84H0 - Historian
  • 85G0 - USAF Honor Guard
  • 86M0 - Operations Management
  • 86P0 - Command and Control
  • 87G0 - Installation Inspector General
  • 88A0 - Aide-de-Camp

Reporting Identifiers[edit]

  • 90G0 - General Officer
  • 91C0 - Commander
  • 91W0 - Wing Commander
  • 92J0 - Nondesignated Lawyer
  • 92J1 - AFROTC Educational Delay-Law Student
  • 92J2 - Funded Legal Education Program Law Student
  • 92J3 - Excess Leave Law Student
  • 92M0 - Health Professions Scholarship Program (HPSP) Medical Student
  • 92M1 - Uniformed Services University of Health Sciences Student
  • 92M2 - HPSP Biomedical Science Student
  • 92R0 - Chaplain Candidate
  • 92S0 - Student Officer Authorization
  • 92T0 - Pilot Trainee
  • 92T1 - Navigator/Combat Systems Officer Trainee
  • 92T2 - Air Battle Manager Trainee
  • 92T3 - Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) Pilot Trainee
  • 92W0 - Wounded Warrior - Combat Related
  • 92W1 - Reserved for Future Use
  • 92W2 - Wounded Warrior
  • 92W3 - Wounded Warrior-Returned to Duty
  • 92W4 - Wounded Warrior-Limited Assignment Status
  • 92W5 - Wounded Warrior-Retired/Discharged
  • 92W9 - Warrior Care
  • 93P0 - Patient
  • 94N0 - Nuclear Weapons Custodian
  • 95A0 - Non-Extended Active Duty AFRC or ANG USAFA Liaison Officer or CAP Liaison Officer
  • 96D0 - Officer not available in awarded AFSC for cause
  • 96U0 - Unclassified Officer
  • 96V0 - Unallotted
  • 97E0 - Executive Officer
  • 99A0 - Unspecified AFSC

Additional information[edit]

During the course of their Air Force careers, Airmen sometimes switch jobs and receive multiple AFSCs to denote training in multiple specialties. A Primary AFSC (PAFSC) is the designation for the specialty in which the individual possesses the highest skill level and is, therefore, the AFSC that he or she is best qualified to perform. The Duty AFSC (DAFSC) reflects the actual manpower position the Airman is assigned to. The Control AFSC (CAFSC) is a management tool to make assignments, assist in determining training requirements, and consider individuals for promotion. Often an enlisted Airman's PAFSC will reflect a higher skill level than his or her CAFSC since the CAFSC skill level is tied to rank while the PAFSC skill level is tied to performance and education.

Usually, the PAFSC, DAFSC, and CAFSC will be the same. However, situations such as retraining, special duties, or Air Force-level changes necessitate these distinctions. Additionally, Airmen that have retrained into multiple specialties will have several Secondary AFSCs (2AFSC, 3AFSC, etc.).

Special Experience Identifiers (SEIs) are established to identify special experience and training. The Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) contains the complete list of authorized SEIs and includes designation criteria and authorized AFSC combinations. (AFI 36-2101)

See also[edit]

References[edit]

  1. ^Air Force Officer Specialty Structure: Reviewing the Fundamentals, 2009. Rand Corporation, ISBN 978-0-8330-4619-2.
  2. ^Wolf, Mackenzie (2015-02-10). "air-force-stressed-career-fields". Airforcetimes.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  3. ^Wolf, Mackenzie (2015-09-07). "8-airmen-needed-new-human-intelligence-afsc". Airforcetimes.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  4. ^Powers, Rod. "Air Force Job: 1S0X1 - Safety". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  5. ^Powers, Rod. "Air Force Enlisted Job Categories - Mechanical". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  6. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  7. ^Powers, Rod. "Air Force Job: 2F0X1 Fuels". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  8. ^Powers, Rod. "Logistics Plans (2G0X1) - Air Force Enlisted Jobs". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  9. ^Powers, Rod. "Missile and Space Systems Electronic Maintenance: 2M0X1". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  10. ^Powers, Rod. "AFSC 2P0X1 - Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  11. ^Powers, Rod. "Air Force Job: 2R1X1, Maintenance Management Production". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  12. ^Powers, Rod. "2S0X1 - Supply Management Air Force Job Description". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  13. ^Smith, Stew. "Can Non-U.S. Citizens Join the United States Military?". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  14. ^"Archived copy". Archived from the original on 2010-10-15. Retrieved 2010-08-04. 
  15. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  16. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  17. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  18. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  19. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  20. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  21. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  22. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  23. ^Powers, Rod. "5J0X1 - PARALEGAL". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  24. ^"Archived copy". Archived from the original on 2011-07-22. Retrieved 2010-08-04. 
  25. ^"Archived copy". Archived from the original on 2011-07-22. Retrieved 2010-08-04. 
  26. ^"Archived copy". Archived from the original on 2011-07-22. Retrieved 2010-08-04. 
  27. ^"Home". Rs.af.mil. 2016-02-02. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  28. ^"U.S. Air Force". Airforce.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  29. ^"Air Force Wounded Warrior Program". Woundedwarrior.af.mil. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  30. ^"Joint Base Andrews". Andrews.af.mil. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 
  31. ^"Archived copy"(PDF). Archived from the original(PDF) on 2014-04-19. Retrieved 2014-04-17. 
  32. ^"Archived copy". Archived from the original on 2011-06-28. Retrieved 2011-02-20. 
  33. ^Powers, Rod. "Developmental Engineer (62EX) Job Descriptions". Usmilitary.about.com. Retrieved 2017-03-28. 

External links[edit]

  • 1. 

     The overall goal of risk management (RM) is to

    • A. 

      A. identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately

    • B. 

      B. make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk.

    • C. 

      C. reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully.

    • D. 

      D. identify risks using the same disciplined, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors.

  • 2. 

     The goals of risk management (RM) include all of the following except

    • A. 

      A. enhancing mission effectiveness

    • B. 

      B. identifying opportunities to increase Air Force war fighting effectiveness.

    • C. 

      C. accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment.

    • D. 

      D. creating an Air Force cultural mindset in which every employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their activities.

  • 3. 

     Which level of risk management (RM) is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 4. 

     Who is the advisor in the risk management (RM) process?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 5. 

     What risk management (RM) term describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 6. 

     Which risk management (RM) hazard identification tool requires little or no training because thousands of people are already familiar with it and know how to apply it in detecting risk?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 7. 

     In risk management (RM) the "appropriate level of management" means the

    • A. 

      A. level that can take disciplinary actions against safety violators

    • B. 

      B. commanders make all the decisions in regard to hazard abatement

    • C. 

      C. functional manager ensures that all hazard abatement is cost effective.

    • D. 

      D. level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard.

  • 8. 

    Which basic principle of risk management (RM) helps maximize unit capabilities by weighing risks against opportunities?

    • A. 

      A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      C. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost.

    • D. 

      D. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning.

  • 9. 

    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes risks as being more easily assessed and managed in the planning stages of an operation?

    • A. 

      A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      C. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost.

    • D. 

      D. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning.

  • 10. 

    How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 11. 

    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes a strategy to identify who, what, when, where, and costs associated with the control measures?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      D. Develop controls and make decisions

  • 12. 

    Which step of the risk management (RM) process includes compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard?

    • A. 

      A. Develop controls and make decisions.

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 13. 

    Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 14. 

    Opting to send an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is employing which risk control option?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 15. 

    Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) includes all of the following except

    • A. 

      A. recommending safe task procedures

    • B. 

      B. identifying potential mishap causes or hazards.

    • C. 

      C. breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps.

    • D. 

      D. mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.

  • 16. 

    An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard is the definition of

    • A. 

    • B. 

      B. job safety analysis (JSA).

    • C. 

      C. operational hazard analysis (OHA).

    • D. 

      D. preliminary hazard analysis

  • 17. 

    Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 18. 

    The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within how many work days?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 19. 

    Who monitors the hazard report (HR) until the hazard is eliminated?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 20. 

    Which hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      C. Planning and engineering.

    • D. 

      D. Operation hazard analysis

  • 21. 

    Which hazard abatement measure involves the supervisor’s responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      C. Planning and engineering

    • D. 

      D. Operation hazard analysis (OHA).

  • 22. 

    Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called

    • A. 

      A. abatement priority measures

    • B. 

      B. imminent danger controls.

    • C. 

      C. interim control measures.

    • D. 

  • 23. 

    If you encounter an imminent danger situation you should immediately notify

    • A. 

    • B. 

      B. the chief of safety (COS).

    • C. 

      C. the functional manager

    • D. 

      D. the ground safety manager.

  • 24. 

    Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?

    • A. 

      A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and 457, USAF Hazard Report.

  • 25. 

    What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?

    • A. 

      A. Severity and probability

    • B. 

      B. Severity and cost-effectiveness.

    • C. 

      C. Probability and mission requirements

    • D. 

      D. Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness.

  • 26. 

    An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap is called

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 27. 

    How many risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions are used in the RAC matrix process?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 28. 

    The abatement priority number (APN) is a code consisting of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      C. cost effectiveness index

    • D. 

      D. severity and probability multiplier.

  • 29. 

    The safety office submits an end-of-fiscal-year Annual Hazard Abatement Survey report to the

    • A. 

      A. major command (MAJCOM).

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC).

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 30. 

    What action is key to the success of your contingency plan?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 31. 

    Operational plans are most often written at

    • A. 

      A. Air Force and major command (MAJCOM) levels

    • B. 

      B. MAJCOM, wing, and base levels

    • C. 

      C. wing, base, and squadron levels

    • D. 

  • 32. 

    Peacetime deployments test

    • A. 

      A. aircraft weapons delivery

    • B. 

      B. effectiveness of wartime plans.

    • C. 

      C. airlift of material and personnel

    • D. 

      D. how well personnel perform under adverse conditions.

  • 33. 

    As the safety representative your primary duties during the deployment phase of an operation of your unit are

    • A. 

      A. reporting mishaps and attending aircrew briefings

    • B. 

      B. monitoring your unit’s flight-line activities and reporting mishaps

    • C. 

      C. attending aircrew briefings and reporting any problems to management

    • D. 

      D. monitoring your unit and support unit activities and reporting any problems to management

  • 34. 

    Site planning is based on the recommendation of the Facility Utilization Board (FUB) and approved by the

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      C. contracting officer (CO).

    • D. 

      D. squadron commander receiving the building.

  • 35. 

    At which points in the design process are predesign reviews accomplished?

    • A. 

      A. 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent

    • B. 

      B. 35, 50, 75, and 100 percent.

    • C. 

      C. 25, 50, 75, and 100 percent

    • D. 

      D. 25, 65, 95, and 100 percent.

  • 36. 

    Which document can you use to get started when dealing with a specific contract?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 37. 

    What type of contract is used to modify existing facilities?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 38. 

    Which agency or office performs the preaward survey?

    • A. 

      A. Major command (MAJCOM) Contracting Office (CO).

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Contract Management Agency.

    • C. 

      C. Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA).

    • D. 

  • 39. 

    How often are support agreements reviewed for "other than budgetary considerations"?

    • A. 

      A. Every 3 years (triennially).

    • B. 

      B. Every 2 years (biennially).

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 40. 

    A supplier may not end or reduce support without giving the receiver written notice within

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 41. 

    A financial blueprint for a specific period of time is called a

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      D. financial statement of work

  • 42. 

    Which section of the Air Force Manpower Standard (AFMS) 106A describes a wing safety office’s duties during normal peacetime operations?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      D. Process oriented description

  • 43. 

    Geographically separated units safety programs are assessed at intervals not to exceed

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 44. 

    The safety inspection system is based on what three types of inspections?

    • A. 

      A. Annual, spot, and staff assistance.

    • B. 

      B. Annual, spot, and high interest area.

    • C. 

      C. Spot, staff assistance, and evaluation

    • D. 

      D. Spot, high interest area, and staff assistance

  • 45. 

    Which inspection is conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 46. 

    Which activity is conducted to specifically help a unit come up with solutions to problems?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      D. Staff assistance visit (SAV).

  • 47. 

    What information is contained in a standard Air Force checklist?

    • A. 

      A. Only Air Force Instruction (AFI) standards and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards

    • B. 

      B. Identification of activity, checklist items, and notation of reference material.

    • C. 

      C. Only checklist items, AFI references, and OSHA references

    • D. 

      D. Only the activity being inspected and checklist items.

  • 48. 

    What are two types of commonly used inspection checklists?

    • A. 

      A. Air Force standard and work card.

    • B. 

      B. Preprinted and Air Force standard.

    • C. 

      C. Preprinted and personally made.

    • D. 

      D. Technical order and Air Force standard.

  • 49. 

    The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss

    • A. 

    • B. 

      B. all superior performers

    • C. 

      C. your findings and recommendations

    • D. 

      D. the commander’s utilization of assigned manpower

  • 50. 

    In addition to the unit commander, send a copy of a tenant unit’s annual inspection report to the

    • A. 

      A. major command (MAJCOM) safety office

    • B. 

      B. unit safety representative

    • C. 

      C. unit’s parent safety office

    • D. 

      D. Air Force safety center (AFSEC).

  • 51. 

    Action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      D. an inspection analysis

  • 52. 

    A Single Investigation Officer (SIO) investigates what types of mishaps?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      D. Class D, E, and high accident reports (HAP).

  • 53. 

    When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      C. lieutenant colonel or GS–13.

    • D. 

      D. lieutenant colonel or GM–15.

  • 54. 

    When multiple major commands (MAJCOM) have assets involved in a mishap and cannot reach an agreement as to who is accountable which agency determines accountability?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 55. 

    Information that is exempt from release outside the Air Force community by statute or case law is known as

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 56. 

    Hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations is called

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      D. disassociating the report.

  • 57. 

    The purpose of giving a witness a promise of confidentiality during a mishap investigation is to

    • A. 

      A. protect the identity of a witness

    • B. 

      B. ensure that the witness will not be prosecuted.

    • C. 

      C. ensure that the witness tells the truth under oath

    • D. 

      D. encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses

  • 58. 

    The main reason safety responds to all major accidents and disaster sites is to

    • A. 

    • B. 

      B. ensure the evidence is not disturbed

    • C. 

      C. observe conditions as they were at the time of the mishap

    • D. 

      D. provide technical support and consultation to commanders.

  • 59. 

    How long after a Class A mishap occurs must the status message be sent?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 60. 

    Which investigative technique is used to look for too many parts or evidence of foreign object damage (FOD)?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      D. System and subsystem analysis

  • 61. 

    Space mishaps are divided into how many subcategories?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 62. 

    Vehicle mishaps are divided into how many subcategories?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 63. 

    Mishaps involving injuries that occur during participation in some form of duty-related athletic or recreational sport activity is categorized as

    • A. 

      A. on-duty—sports and recreation.

    • B. 

      B. off-duty—sports and recreation

    • C. 

      C. ground and industrial—sports and recreation

    • D. 

      D. ground and industrial—physical conditioning.

  • 64. 

    How many parts does a privileged formal safety report contain?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 65. 

    What are mishap findings based on?

    • A. 

      A. Investigator’s best judgment

    • B. 

      B. Professional knowledge

    • C. 

      C. Weight of the evidence

    • D. 

  • 66. 

    Mishap report recommendations should be both

    • A. 

      A. feasible and effective

    • B. 

      B. sensible and effective.

    • C. 

      C. obtainable and sensible

    • D. 

      D. obtainable and feasible

  • 67. 

    The purpose of a recommendation in a mishap investigation report is to

    • A. 

    • B. 

      B. communicate lessons learned

    • C. 

      C. prevent or mitigate future mishaps.

    • D. 

      D. implement new strategies in injury prevention

  • 68. 

    A thorough mishap investigation is absolutely necessary not only to determine the events causal to a mishap but also to

    • A. 

      A. recommend corrective actions to prevent recurrence.

    • B. 

      B. determine blame for failure to follow written standards

    • C. 

      C. determine cost of mishap to support disciplinary actions.

    • D. 

      D. recommend appropriate emergency response for mishaps.

  • 69. 

    The Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC) is the approval authority for closure of primary recommendations for what classes of mishaps?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      C. Only C, D & E with office of primary responsibility (OPR) at major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      D. Only C, D & E with OPR at wing, group or squadron.

  • 70. 

    Follow up actions for mishap reports begin after

    • A. 

      A. release of the final message

    • B. 

      B. the recommendations are implemented

    • C. 

      C. the recommended corrective actions are implemented

    • D. 

      D. the investigator receives confirmation that corrective actions have been implemented

  • 71. 

    What agency prepares of the memorandum of final evaluation for on-duty Class A and B formal ground mishap reports?

    • A. 

      A. Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA).

    • B. 

      B. The major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC).

    • D. 

  • 72. 

    The end result of an analysis is useless unless the recommended action is

    • A. 

      A. reviewed by the installation commander

    • B. 

      B. widely distributed throughout the base

    • C. 

      C. addressed to an action agency.

    • D. 

  • 73. 

    The desired result of recommendations stemming from any analysis program is to

    • A. 

      A. select a unit for a safety award

    • B. 

      B. obtain lasting corrective action

    • C. 

      C. determine who is at fault in a mishap

    • D. 

      D. assign mishap rates to the applicable unit.

  • 74. 

    What investigation tool provides a multidimensional approach to error analysis?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 75. 

    The cross-feed of human error data using a common human error categorization system that involves human factors taxonomy describes the

    • A. 

      A. Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS).

    • B. 

      B. Mishap Reporting System and Classification System.

    • C. 

      C. Human Factors Analysis and Characterization System.

    • D. 

      D. Mishap Reporting System and Characterization System

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